（GRE书）最新练习题二(95-10)

最新题２

SECTION 2

1. Though ---- to some degree, telling a small lie

sometimes enables one to avoid ---- another's

feelings.

(A) necessary.. mollifying

(B) regrettable.. harming

(C) unfortunate.. exaggerating

(D) attractive.. considering

(E) difficult.. resisting

2. Perhaps because scientists have been so intrigued by

dogs' superior senses of smell and hearing, researchers

have long ---- their eyesight, assuming that they

inhabit a drab, black-and-white world, devoid of

color.

(A) studied

(B) coveted

(C) appreciated

(D) resented

(E) underestimated

3. Despite a string of dismal earnings reports, the

two-year-old strategy to return the company to

profitability is beginning to ----.

(A) falter

(B) disappoint

(C) compete

(D) work

(E) circulate

4. The President reached a decision only after lengthy

------, painstakingly weighing the ----opinions

expressed by cabinet members.

(A) deliberation.. divergent

(B) confrontation.. unanimous

(C) relegation.. consistent

(D) speculation.. conciliatory

(E) canvassing.. arbitrary

5. Although just barely ---- as a writer of lucid prose,

Jones was an extremely ---- editor who worked

superbly with other writers in helping them improve

the clarity of their writing.

(A) deficient.. muddling

(B) proficient.. contentious

(C) adequate.. capable

(D) appalling.. competent

(E) engaging.. inept

6. The accusations we bring against others should be

---- ourselves; they should not ---- complacency

and easy judgments on our part concerning our own

moral conduct.

(A) definitions of.. produce

(B) instructions to.. equate

(C) denigrations of.. exclude

(D) warnings to.. justify

(E) parodies of.. satirize

7. Although the meanings of words may necessarily be

liable to change, it does not follow that the lexicog-

rapher is therefore unable to render spelling, in a

great measure, ----.

(A) arbitrary

(B) superfluous

(C) interesting

(D) flexible

(E) constant

8. ELEGIAC: SORROW::

(A) polemical: resolution

(B) fictional: humor

(C) devotional: reverence

(D) didactic: inspiration

(E) literary: emotion

9. ROSTRUM: ORATOR::

(A) stage: audience

(B) bench: judge

(C) shelf: clerk

(D) municipality: citizen

(E) crosswalk: pedestrian

10. MISUNDERSTOOD: CLARIFY

(A) fanatical: espouse

(B) popular: renounce

(C) fantastic: shock

(D) erroneous: retract

(E) conspicuous: flaunt

11. REFINERY: PETROLEUM::

(A) mill: grain

(B) mine: ore

(C) warehouse: merchandise

(D) generator: electricity

(E) forest: lumber

12. TEDIOUS: ENERGY::

(A) avaricious: satisfaction

(B) fractious: irritation

(C) disturbing: composure

(D) improbable: ambition

(E) informed: intelligence

13. GRACEFUL: MOVEMENT::

(A) euphonious: sound

(B) forbidding: countenance

(C) ephemeral: duration

(D) melodramatic: emotion

(E) vibrant: color

14. BRAVURA: PERFORMANCE::

(A) extravagant: expenditure

(B) elaborate: oration

(C) foreseeable: outcome

(D) thorough: analysis

(E) resplendent: appearance

15. BADGER: BOTHER::

(A) persecute: injure

(B) haunt: remember

(C) belabor: mention

(D) quibble: argue

(E) censure: evaluate

16. CONGRUENT: DIMENSIONS::

(A) convenient: time

(B) coordinate: axis

(C) conglomerate: parts

(D) coincident: chance

(E) coeval: age

It is possible for students to obtain advanced degrees in

English while knowing little or nothing about traditional

scholarly methods. The consequences of this neglect of

traditional scholarship are particularly unfortunate for the

(5) study of women writers. If the canon—the list of authors

whose works are most widely taught—is ever to include

more women, scholars must be well trained in historical

scholarship and textual editing. Scholars who do not know

how to read early manuscripts, locate rare books, establish

(10)a sequence of editions, and so on are bereft of crucial tools

for revising the canon.

To address such concerns, an experimental version of

the traditional scholarly methods course was designed to

raise students' consciousness about the usefulness of

(15)traditional learning for any modern critic or theorist. To

minimize the artificial aspects of the conventional course,

the usual procedure of assigning a large number of small

problems drawn from the entire range of historical periods

was abandoned, though this procedure has the obvious

(20)advantage of at least superficially familiarizing students

with a wide range of reference sources. Instead students

were engaged in a collective effort to do original work on

a neglected eighteenth-century writer, Elizabeth Griffith, to

give them an authentic experience of literary scholarship

(25)and to inspire them to take responsibility for the quality of

their own work.

Griffith's work presented a number of advantages for

this particular pedagogical purpose. First, the body of

extant scholarship on Griffith was so tiny that it could all

(30)be read in a day; thus students spent little time and effort

mastering the literature and had a clear field for their own

discoveries. Griffith's play The Platonic Wife exists in three

versions, enough to provide illustrations of editorial issues

but not too many for beginning students to manage. In addi-

(35)tion, because Griffith was successful in the eighteenth cen-

tury, as her continued productivity and favorable reviews

demonstrate, her exclusion from the canon and virtual dis-

appearance from literary history also helped raise issues

concerning the current canon.

(40) The range of Griffith's work meant that each student

could become the world's leading authority on a particular

Griffith text. For example, a student studying Griffith's

Wife in the Right obtained a first edition of the play and

studied it for some weeks. This student was suitably

(45)shocked and outraged to find its title transformed into A

Wife in the Night in Watt's Bibliotheca Britannica. Such

experiences, inevitable and common in working on a writer

to whom so little attention has been paid, serve to vaccinate

the student ---I hope for a lifetime—against credulous use

of reference sources.

17.The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

(A) revealing a commonly ignored deficiency

(B) proposing a return to traditional terminology

(C) describing an attempt to correct a shortcoming

(D) assessing the success of a new pedagogical

approach

(E) predicting a change in a traditional teaching

strategy

18.It can be inferred that the author of the passage expects

that the experience of the student mentioned as having

studied Wife in the Right would have which of the fol-

lowing effects?

(A) It would lead the student to disregard information

found in the Bibliotheca Britannica.

(B) It would teach the student to question the accuracy

of certain kinds of information sources when

studying neglected authors.

(C) It would teach the student to avoid the use of refer-

ence sources in studying neglected authors.

(D) It would help the student to understand the impor-

tance of first editions in establishing the author-

ship of plays.

(E) It would enhance the student's appreciation of the

works of authors not included in the canon.

19. The author of the passage suggests that which of the

following is a disadvantage of the strategy employed in

the experimental scholarly methods course?

(A) Students were not given an opportunity to study

women writers outside the canon.

(B) Students' original work would not be appreciated

by recognized scholars.

(C) Little scholarly work has been done on the work

of Elizabeth Griffith.

(D) Most of the students in the course had had little

opportunity to study eighteenth-century literature.

(E) Students were not given an opportunity to encoun-

ter certain sources of information that could

prove useful in their future studies.

20. Which of the following best states the "particular

pedagogical purpose" mentioned in line 28?

(A) To assist scholars in revising the canon of authors

(B) To minimize the trivial aspects of the traditional

scholarly methods course

(C) To provide students with information about

Griffith's work

(D) To encourage scholarly rigor in students' own

research

(E) To reestablish Griffith's reputation as an author

21. Which of the following best describes the function of

the last paragraph in relation to the passage as a

whole?

(A) It summarizes the benefits that students can derive

from the experimental scholarly methods course.

(B) It provides additional reasons why Griffith's work

raises issues having to do with the canon of

authors.

(C) It provides an illustration of the immediate nature

of the experiences students can derive from the

experimental scholarly methods course.

(D) It contrasts the experience of a student in the

experimental scholarly methods course with the

experience of a student in the traditional course

(E) It provides information that emphasizes the suita-

bility of Griffith's work for inclusion in the

canon of authors.

22. It can be inferred that which of the following is most

likely to be among the "issues" mentioned in line 38?

(A) Why has the work of Griffith, a woman writer

who was popular in her own century, been

excluded from the canon?

(B) In what ways did Griffith's work reflect the polit-

ical climate of the eighteenth century?

(C) How was Griffith's work received by literary

critics during the eighteenth century?

(D) How did the error in the title of Griffith's play

come to be made?

(E) How did critical reception of Griffith's work

affect the quantity and quality of that work?

23. It can be inferred that the author of the passage con-

siders traditional scholarly methods courses to be

(A) irrelevant to the work of most students

(B) inconsequential because of their narrow focus

(C) unconcerned about the accuracy of reference

sources

(D) too superficial to establish important facts about

authors

(E) too wide-ranging to approximate genuine scholarly

activity

Experiments show that insects can function as pollinators

of cycads, rare, palmlike tropical plants. Furthermore, cycads

removed from their native habitats—and therefore from

insects native to those habitats—are usually infertile. Nev-

(5) ertheless, anecdotal reports of wind pollination in cycads

cannot be ignored. The structure of cycads male cones is

quite consistent with the wind dispersal of pollen, clouds

of which are released from some of the larger cones. The

male cone of Cycas circinalis, for example, sheds almost

(10)100 cubic centimeters of pollen, most of which is probably

dispersed by wind. Still, many male cycad cones are com-

paratively small and thus produce far less pollen. Further-

more, the structure of most female cycad cones seems incon-

sistent with direct pollination by wind. Only in the Cycas

(15)genus are the females' ovules accessible to airborne pollen,

since only in this genus are the ovules surrounded by a

loose aggregation of megasporophylls rather than by a tight

cone.

24.According to the passage, the size of a male cycad

cone directly influences which of the following?

(A) The arrangement of the male cone's structural

elements

(B) The mechanism by which pollen is released from

the male cone.

(C) The degree to which the ovules of female cycads

are accessible to airborne pollen

(D) The male cone's attractiveness to potential insect

pollinators

(E) The amount of pollen produced by the male cone

25. The passage suggests that which of the following is

true of the structure of cycad cones?

(A) The structure of cycad cones provides conclusive

evidence in favor of one particular explanation

of cycad pollination.

(B) The structure of cycad cones provides evidence

concerning what triggers the first step in the

pollination process.

(C) An irresolvable discrepancy exists between what

the structure of most male cycad cones suggests

about cycad pollination and what the structure of

most female cones suggests about that process.

(D) The structure of male cycad cones rules out a

possible mechanism for cycad pollination that is

suggested by the structure of most female cycad

cones.

(E) The structure of male cycad cones is consistent

with a certain means of cycad pollination, but

that means is inconsistent with the structure of

most female cycad cones.

26. The evidence in favor of insect pollination of cycads

presented in lines 2-4 would be more convincing if

which of the following were also true?

(A) Only a small variety of cycad species can be

successfully transplanted.

(B) Cycads can sometimes be pollinated by means

other than wind or insects.

(C) Insects indigenous to regions to which cycads are

transplanted sometimes feed on cycads.

(D) Winds in the areas to which cycads are usually

transplanted are similar to winds in cycads'

native habitats.

(E) The transplantation of cycads from one region to

another usually involves the accidental removal

and introduction of insects as well.

27. The passage suggests that which of the following is

true of scientific investigations of cycad pollination?

(A) They have not yet produced any systematic evi-

dence of wind pollination in cycads.

(B) They have so far confirmed anecdotal reports con-

cerning the wind pollination of cycads.

(C) They have, until recently, produced little evidence

in favor of insect pollination in cycads.

(D) They have primarily been carried out using cycads

transplanted from their native habitats.

(E) They have usually concentrated on describing the

physical characteristics of the cycad reproductive

system.

28. PROCRASTINATION:

(A) diligence

(B) complacence

(C) reasonableness

(D) allegiance

(E) rehabilitation

29. CIRCUITY

(A) straightforwardness

(B) inventiveness

(C) authenticity

(D) insightfulness

(E) practicality

30. CONCLUDE:

(A) foster

(B) frequent

(C) emanate from

(D) empower to

(E) embark on

31. RITE:

(A) coherent interpretation

(B) improvised act

(C) deductive approach

(D) casual observation

(E) unnecessary addition

32. BLATANT:

(A) indecisive

(B) perceptive

(C) unobtrusive

(D) involuntary

(E) spontaneous

33. PONTIFICATE:

(A) request rudely

(B) glance furtively

(C) behave predictably

(D) work efficiently

(E) speak modestly

34. POSIT:

(A) deceive

(B) begrudge

(C) deny

(D) consent

(E) reinforce

35. FETTER:

(A) justify

(B) comfort

(C) intrude

(D) liberate

(E) optimize

36. SYNERGIC:

(A) natural in origin

(B) fragile in structure

(C) untainted

(D) inessential

(E) antagonistic

37. DEPRIVATION:

(A) sanity

(B) awareness

(C) surfeit

(D) fecundity

(E) health

38. CORPOREAL:

(A) unreliable

(B) unscientific

(C) indistinguishable

(D) inanimate

(E) immaterial

SECTION 3

1 Armtech, a temporary-employment agency, previously

gave its employees 2.5 paid vacation days after each

700 hours worked. Armtech's new policy is to give

its employees 5.0 paid vacation days after each 1,200

hours worked. Therefore, this new policy is more

generous to Armtech employees in giving them more

vacation days per hour worked than the old policy did.

Which of the following is an assumption on which

the argument depends？

(A) Most current Armtech employees approve of the

company's new vacation policy.

(B) A few Armtech employees leave the company

before having worked 700 hours.

(C) Most Armtech employees were not aware that

the company planned to change its vacation

policy until after it had already done so.

(D) A significant portion of Armtech employees stay

with the company long enough to work for

1,200 hours.

(E) Armtech's new vacation policy closely matches

the vacation policies of competing temporary

employment agencies.

2 The global population of frogs has declined in recent

years while the amount of ultraviolet radiation reaching

the Earth has increased. Since the genetic material in

frog eggs is harmed when exposed to ultraviolet radi-

ation, and since the eggs themselves are not protected

by shells or leathery coverings but are gelatinous, the

frog population decline is probably due, at least in

part, to the ultraviolet radiation increase.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest

support for the argument？

(A) Even in those regions where there has been no

significant increase in ultraviolet radiation, only

a small proportion of the frog eggs that are laid

ever hatch.

(B) In areas where there has been the least decline

in frog populations, populations of species of

insects that frogs eat have decreased.

(C) The eggs of frog species whose populations are

declining tend to have higher concentrations of

damaging pesticides than do the eggs of frog

species whose populations have not declined.

(D) In many places where turtles, which lay eggs

with tough, leathery coverings, share habitats

with frogs, turtle populations are also in decline.

(E) Populations of frog species that hide their eggs

beneath rocks or under sand have declined

considerably less than have populations of frog

species that do not cover their eggs.

Questions 3-8

A doctor is scheduling one appointment each with five

patients—J, K, L, M, and N. The five appointments will

be consecutive and are numbered 1 through 5, from

earliest to latest. The doctor must schedule at least four of

the patients for appointments preferred by those patients

and cannot schedule any patient for an appointment unac-

ceptable to that patient. The following is a complete list

of what the patients prefer and, if they do not receive

their preferences, will accept：

J prefers an appointment earlier than appointment 3, but

will accept any appointment.

K prefers appointment 2, but will accept any appoint-

ment except appointment 1.

L prefers appointment 1, but will accept appointment 5.

M prefers and will accept only an appointment later

than appointment 3.

N prefers and will accept only appointment 3.

3.Which of the following lists the patients in an order

in which their scheduled appointments can occur,

from appointment 1 through appointment 5 ？

(A) J, K, N, L, M

(B) J, M, N, K, L

(C) K, J, N, M, L

(D) L, J, K, N, M

(E) L, J, N, M, K

4.If J is scheduled for appointment 2, which of the

following can be true？

(A) K is scheduled for appointment 3.

(B) K is scheduled for appointment 4.

(C) L is scheduled for appointment 4.

(D) L is scheduled for appointment 5.

(E) M is scheduled for appointment 1.

5.If L is scheduled for appointment 5, which of the

following must be true？

(A) J is scheduled for appointment 1.

(B) J is scheduled for appointment 2.

(C) J is scheduled for appointment 4.

(D) K is scheduled for appointment 4.

(E) N is scheduled for appointment 5.

6.Which of the following is a complete and accurate

list of patients any one of whom can be the patient

scheduled for appointment 2？

(A) K

(B) J, K

(C) J, M

(D) J, K, L

(E) K, L, M

7.If M is scheduled for appointment 5, which of the

following can be true of the scheduling？

(A) J's appointment is appointment 1.

(B) N's appointment is appointment 1.

(C) J's appointment is earlier than K's appointment.

(D) K's appointment is earlier than L's appointment.

(E) N's appointment is earlier than L's appointment.

8.If K's appointment is scheduled for a time later than

N's appointment, which of the following must be true？

(A) J is scheduled for appointment 4.

(B) K is scheduled for appointment 5.

(C) L is scheduled for appointment 1.

(D) M is scheduled for appointment 4.

(E) N is scheduled for appointment 2.

Questions 9-10 are based on the following graph.

In January of 1990 a certain country enacted a strict new law to deter people from drunken driving. The law imposes

mandatory jail sentences for anyone convicted of drunken driving.

9.Which of the following, if true about the years 1990

through 1992, most helps to explain the data illus-

trated in the graph？

(A) Most of the people arrested for and convicted of

drunken driving were repeat offenders.

(B) Many of the people arrested for and convicted of

drunken driving participated in alcohol-education

programs in order to reduce their jail sentences.

(C) Juries in drunken driving cases became increas-

ingly reluctant to convict people on whom

mandatory jail sentences would be imposed.

(D) Since the law was enacted, the number of deaths

attributed to drunken driving has declined

significantly.

(E) The majority of the residents of the country

supported the strict law to deter people from

drunken driving.

10.Which of the following, if true, strengthens the claim

that the changes in the ratio of arrests to convictions

since the beginning of 1990 are due to an increase in

the number of people arrested for drunken driving

who were not drunk？

(A) Before 1990 only people driving erratically were

stopped by the police on suspicion of drunken

driving, but since the beginning of 1990 police

have been allowed to stop drivers randomly

and to arrest any driver whom they suspect of

having drunk any alcohol.

(B) Since the beginning of 1990 new technology has

enabled police who stop a driver to establish

immediately whether the driver is drunk,

whereas before 1990 police had to rely on

observations of a driver's behavior to make a

judgment about that driver's drunkenness.

(C) After 1990 the number of police officers assigned

to patrol for drunken drivers increased only

very slightly compared to the number of police

officers assigned to patrol for drunken drivers

in the years 1985 through 1989.

(D) In 1990 a greater number of drivers were igno-

rant of the laws concerning drunken driving

than were ignorant of the drunken driving laws

in 1989.

(E) After 1990 teenagers and young adults constituted

a greater proportion of those arrested for drunken

driving than in the years 1985 through 1989.

11 To improve productivity, manufacturing companies

have recently begun restructuring work to produce

more goods with fewer assembly-line workers, and

the companies have laid off many workers as a

consequence. The workers laid off have been those

with the least seniority(time on the job), generally

the younger workers.

The statements above, if true, most strongly support

which of the following as a conclusion？

(A) The products manufactured by the companies are

not undergoing design changes while the

manufacturing jobs are being restructured.

(B) When assembly-line workers have made sug-

gestions for improvements in manufacturing

processes, some suggestions have been

implemented, but many have not.

(C) Assembly-line workers now need increased

reading and mathematical skills to do their

jobs.

(D) Some of the innovations in assembly-line

processes and procedures that were made to

increase productivity have instead proved to be

counterproductive.

(E) The manufacturing companies are increasing the

average age of their assembly-line workforce

while still seeking to increase production.

12.During the nineteenth century, Britain's urban popu-

lation increased as its rural population diminished. A

historian theorizes that, rather than industrialization's

being the cause, this change resulted from a series

of migrations to urban areas, each occasioned by a

depression in the agrarian economy. To test this hypoth-

esis, the historian will compare economic data with

population census data.

The historian's hypothesis would be most strongly

supported if which of the following were found to be

true？

(A) The periods of greatest growth in the industrial

economy were associated with a relatively

rapid decline in the rural population.

(B) The periods of greatest weakness in the agrarian

economy were associated with relatively slow

growth in the population as a whole.

(C) Periods when the agrarian economy was compar-

atively strong and the industrial economy com-

paratively weak were associated with a particu-

larly rapid decline in the rural population.

(D) Periods when the agrarian and industrial econo-

mies were both strong were associated with

particularly rapid growth in the urban popula-

tion.

(E) The periods of greatest strength in the agrarian

economy were associated with relatively slow

growth in the urban population.

Questions 13-16

On each of the three consecutive days Monday through

Wednesday, exactly two employees are to staff a com-

pany's information booth. The three available employees

—Feng, Gómez, and Hull—will staff the booth in

accordance with the following conditions：

Gómez and Hull must each staff the booth on at least

one of the days, but Feng must staff it on at least two

the days.

The booth cannot be staffed by the same two employees

on any two consecutive days.

If Hull staffs the booth on Monday, Gómez must be the

other employee staffing the booth on Monday.

13.Which of the following can be the schedule of

employees staffing the booth on the three days？

Monday Tuesday Wednesday

(A) Feng,Gómez Feng,Gómez Feng,Hull

(B) Feng,Gómez Feng,Hull Gómez,Hull

(C) Feng,Hull Feng,Gómez Gómez,Hull

(D) Gómez,Hull Feng,Gómez Gómez,Hull

(E) Gómez,Hull Feng,Hull Feng,Hull

14.If Gómez staffs the booth on Monday and Tuesday,

which of the following must be true？

(A) Feng staffs the booth on Monday.

(B) Feng staffs the booth on Tuesday.

(C) Feng staffs the booth on Wednesday.

(D) Hull staffs the booth on Monday.

(E) Hull staffs the booth on Tuesday.

15.If Hull staffs the booth on Monday and Wednesday,

which of the following must be true？

(A) Feng and Gómez staff the booth on Tuesday.

(B) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Monday.

(C) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Tuesday.

(D) Gómez and Hull staff the booth on Tuesday.

(E) Gómez and Hull staff the booth on Wednesday.

16.If Hull staffs the booth on only one of the days,

which of the following can be true？

(A) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Monday.

(B) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Wednesday.

(C) Gómez and Hull staff the booth on Monday.

(D) Gómez and Hull staff the booth on Tuesday.

(E) Gómez and Hull staff the booth the on Wednesday.

Questions 17-22

A science teacher is selecting projects for each of two

classes from a group of exactly seven projects—R, S,

T, V, X, Y, and Z. The teacher will assign projects to

Class 1 and Class 2 according to the following

conditions：

Each project must be assigned to exactly one class.

Four of the projects must be assigned to Class 1 and

three to Class 2.

R must be assigned to Class 2.

The class to which V is assigned cannot be the same

class as the one to which Y is assigned.

If V is assigned to Class 1, X must be assigned

to Class 1.

If Z is assigned to Class 2, Y must be assigned to

Class 1.

17.Which of the following could be the projects assigned

to the two classes？

Class 1 Class 2

(A) R, V, X, Y S, T, Z

(B) S, T, V, Z R, X, Y

(C) S, T, X, Y R, V, Z

(D) S, T, X, Z R, V, Y

(E) S, V, X, Y R, T, Z

18.If X is assigned to Class 2, which of the following

must be true？

(A) R is assigned to Class 1.

(B) S is assigned to Class 2.

(C) T is assigned to Class 2.

(D) Y is assigned to Class 1.

(E) Z is assigned to Class 2.

19.If Z is assigned to Class 2, which of the following

must be true？

(A) S is assigned to Class 2.

(B) T is assigned to Class 2.

(C) V is assigned to Class 1.

(D) X is assigned to Class 1.

(E) Y is assigned to Class 2.

20.If Y is assigned to Class 2, any of the following

could be assigned together to one of the classes

EXCEPT

(A) R and T

(B) S and T

(C) S and Y

(D) T and Z

(E) X and Z

21.If T is assigned to the same class as V, which of the

following must be assigned to the same class as each

other？

(A) R and T

(B) S and X

(C) S and Y

(D) X and Y

(E) Y and Z

22.If V is assigned to a different class from Z, which of

the following must be true？

(A) S is assigned to Class 1.

(B) S is assigned to Class 2.

(C) T is assigned to Class 2.

(D) V is assigned to Class 2.

(E) X is assigned to Class 1.

23 Politician：Each year, small businesses create more

jobs than do large established businesses.

Therefore, in order to reduce unemploy-

ment in the long term, we should provide

incentives for starting small businesses

rather than for expanding established large

businesses.

Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt

on the politician's argument？

(A) In general, people employed by small businesses

report higher job satisfaction than do people

employed by large businesses.

(B) Among the currently unemployed are many

people with sufficient job skills to perform the

jobs that small businesses would create.

(C) Providing an effective incentive for starting a

business generally costs significantly less than

providing an effective incentive for expanding

a large business.

(D) A high proportion of small businesses fail within

three years of starting because of their owners'

inexperience.

(E) The average large business contributes more

money to politicians’ campaign funds than the

average small business does.

24 In the workplace, influenza is typically spread by

infected individuals to others with whom they work

in close quarters. A new medication that suppresses

the symptoms of influenza therefore will actually

increase the number of influenza cases, because this

medication will allow people who would otherwise be

home in bed to return to work while infected.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously chal-

lenges the prediction？

(A) Coughing, a symptom of influenza that the new

medication suppresses, is a primary mechanism

in the spread of this illness.

(B) Some medications that are used to suppress

symptoms of influenza are also used by many

people to treat symptoms that are caused not

by influenza but by other illnesses.

(C) Many workers who now remain at home when

infected with influenza do so because the

symptoms of influenza prevent them from per-

forming their jobs effectively.

(D) Most adults who are immunized against influ-

enza in order to avoid being infected are over

65 years old and retired and thus do not work

outside the home.

(E) Symptoms of an illness are often the body's

means of curing itself of the illness, and there-

fore suppression of symptoms can prolong the

illness that causes them.

25 Editorial：

Critics of nuclear power complain about the allegedly

serious harm that might result from continued operation

of existing nuclear power plants. But such concerns do

not justify closing these plants；after all, their operation

has caused no more harm than that caused by pollution

generated by coal-and oil-burning power plants, the

most important other sources of energy.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the

argument depends？

(A) Existing nuclear power plants should be closed only

if it can be conclusively demonstrated that their

continued operation is likely to cause harm more

serious than the harm their operation has already

caused.

(B) Closing existing nuclear power plants would require

greatly increased reliance on coal-and oil-burning

power plants.

(C) The harm that has resulted from operation of

existing coal-and oil-burning power plants has

been significant.

(D) The harm that a nuclear power plant is likely to

cause as it continues to operate can be reliably

predicted from the past history of nuclear power

plants.

(E) The only harm that has resulted from operation of

existing coal-and oil-burning power plants has

resulted from the pollution generated by these

plants.

SECTION 4

Questions 1-7

A museum will display seven statues—P, Q, R, S, T, U,

and W—in two of its galleries, gallery 1 and gallery 2.

Exactly four of the statues will be displayed in gallery 1

and exactly three of the statues will be displayed in

gallery 2. The statues will be displayed according to the

following conditions:

U cannot be displayed in a gallery with W

Neither S nor T can be displayed in a gallery with R.

1.If U is displayed in gallery 2, which of the following

must be true?

(A) P is displayed in gallery 1.

(B) R is displayed in gallery 2.

(C) S is displayed in gallery 1.

(D) T is displayed in gallery 2.

(E) W is displayed in gallery 1.

2.If S is displayed in gallery 2, the other two statues

displayed in gallery 2 can be

(A) P and Q

(B) P and T

(C) Q and T

(D) T and W

(E) U and W

3.If P is displayed in gallery 1 and W is displayed in

gallery 2, then the display in gallery 1 can include

any of the following pairs of statues EXCEPT

(A) Q and R

(B) Q and T

(C) Q and U

(D) R and U

(E) S and T

4.If P and Q are displayed in gallery 1, which of the

following is a statue that must also be displayed in

gallery 1?

(A) R

(B) S

(C) T

(D) U

(E) W

5.If S is displayed in gallery 1, which of the following

must be true?

(A) P is displayed in gallery 1.

(B) Q is displayed in gallery 1.

(C) R and U are displayed in the same gallery as

each other.

(D) P and Q are not displayed in the same gallery as

each other.

(E) Q and R are not displayed in the same gallery as

each other.

6.If T is displayed in gallery 2, which of the following

is a pair of statues that CANNOT be displayed in the

same gallery as each other?

(A) P and S

(B) Q and R

(C) Q and W

(D) R and U

(E) T and W

7.If Q is displayed in the same gallery as S. Which of

the following must be true?

(A) P is displayed in gallery 1.

(B) R is displayed in gallery 2.

(C) Q and S are displayed in gallery 2.

(D) P is displayed in the same gallery as W.

(E) R is displayed in the same gallery as U.

8 Drug manufacturer: Although our company requires

that patients who use our new drug also pur-

chase from us nonreusable kits for weekly

blood testing, the expense of those kits is an

entirely necessary one: weekly blood testing

must be done to monitor the drug's potential

side effects, which can be very dangerous.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weak-

ens the manufacturer's argument?

(A) The expense of purchasing the blood-test kits

has not prevented any patients from obtaining

them or the drug.

(B) Medical laboratories can perform the blood test-

ing at a lower cost to patients or their insurers

than the price the manufacturer charges for the

kits.

(C) A one-year supply of the drug and the weekly

blood-test kits can cost patients or their

insurers over $10,000.

(D) Most government and other health insurance

programs will not reimburse patients for the

full cost of both the drug and the blood-test

kits.

(E) Patients who suffer one or more of the danger-

ous side effects of the drug can incur heavy

expenses for the treatment of those side effects.

9 Virginia and her brother William disagree over when

their father was born: Virginia claims it was in 1935

and William claims it was in 1933. The hospital

where their father was born has no records for 1933

but has complete records for 1935—records that do

not include a birth record for their father. Therefore,

he must have been born in 1933.

The argument depends on which of the following

assumptions?

(A) Either Virginia's claim or William's claim is

correct.

(B) The records of the hospital where their father

was born date back to 1933.

(C) Virginia and William know the day and the

month of their father's birth.

(D) There are urgent practical reasons why Virginia

and William must know the date of their

father's birth.

(E) None of their other relatives knows the year in

which Virginia and William's father was born.

10. RESULTS OF TWO SURVEYS OF OPINIONS REGARDING

THE EFFECTS OF SCIENCE OF HUMAN SOCIETY

Responses August 1991 August 1992

Mostly beneficial 25% 81%

Equally harmful 37% 9%

and beneficial

Mostly harmful 20% 7%

No opinion 18% 3%

Which of the following, if true, contributes most to explaining the

shift in opinions about the effects of science on human society?

(A) The surveys questioned people who regularly watch prime-time

television, and an innovative weekly prime-time television

series called "Wonders of Science"had been steadily winning

viewers since its widely seen premiere in January 1992.

(B) The surveys questioned college-educated adults, and a report

called "The State of the Nation's Schools," published in June

1992, noted an increase in students’ interest in science courses

since 1982.

(C) The surveys were conducted in a suburban shopping area near a

company that ceased operation in April 1992 as a result of

lawsuits arising from unexpected toxic effects of the company's

products.

(D) Both survey forms were mailed to equally large samples of the

population; after returning the 1991 survey forms, respondents

were sent discount coupons for food products, and after

returning the 1992 survey forms, respondents were sent a

pamphlet on recycling.

(E) The surveys questioned first-year college students across the

country, and the people who did the questioning were all

research scientists.

Questions 11-17

A science reporter will make a trip to visit exactly six

archaeological sites—Quin, Ram, Sud, Tunin, Vara, and

Xilat. The reporter must visit the sites one at a time in

accordance with the following conditions:

The reporter visits each site exactly once.

The reporter's trip begins at Quin or else at Xilat.

The reporter's trip ends at Vara or else at Xilat.

The reporter visits Vara immediately after visiting Sud.

The reporter visits Sud at some time after visiting Ram.

11.Which of the following is a list of the sites in an

order in which the reporter can visit them, from the

first site visited to the last site visited?

(A) Quin, Ram, Sud, Vara, Xilat, Tunin

(B) Quin, Sud, Vara, Tunin, Ram, Xilat

(C) Ram, Sud, Vara, Tunin, Quin, Xilat

(D) Xilat, Ram, Sud, Tunin, Quin, Vara

(E) Xilat, Tunin, Ram, Quin, Sud, Vara

12.If Sud is visited immediately after Quin is visited,

which of the following can be the second site visited?

(A) Quin

(B) Sud

(C) Tunin

(D) Vara

(E) Xilat

13.If Tunin is visited as late in the trip as possible,

which of the following must be the third site visited?

(A) Quin

(B) Ram

(C) Sud

(D) Vara

(E) Xilat

14.If Tunin is visited before Xilat is visited and if

exactly one site is visited between the visit to Tunin

and the visit to Xilat, which of the following must be

true?

(A) Quin is visited second.

(B) Ram is visited third.

(C) Sud is visited fourth.

(D) Vara is visited fifth.

(E) Xilat is visited sixth.

15.If Xilat is visited immediately after Ram is visited.

Which of the following must be true?

(A) Quin is visited at some time after Tunin is

visited.

(B) Ram is visited at some time after Quin is visited.

(C) Tunin is visited at some time after Ram is

visited.

(D) Tunin is visited at some time after Sud is

visited.

(E) Xilat is visited at some time after Sud is visited.

16.If Ram is the fourth site visited, which of the follow-

ing must be true?

(A) Quin is the first site visited.

(B) Tunin is the second site visited.

(C) Tunin is the third site visited.

(D) Vara is the sixth site visited.

(E) Xilat is the sixth site visited.

17.Which of the following can be true?

(A) Quin is the fifth site visited

(B) Ram is the fifth site visited.

(C) Sud is the second site visited.

(D) Xilat is the second site visited.

(E) Xilat is the fifth site visited.

Questions 18-22

Eight representatives—Gold, Herrera, Jones, Karami,

Lowell, Nakamura, Orson, and Porter—will be scheduled

to present information at four project meetings: W, X, Y

and Z. Each representative will be scheduled for exactly

one meeting, and at least one representative will be

scheduled for each meeting. The meetings will be held

one at a time, one after another. The order of the meet-

ings and the schedule of representatives for the meetings

must meet the following conditions:

Meeting W is held first, and exactly three representa-

tives are scheduled for it.

Meeting X is held at some time before meeting Y.

Gold and Herrera are both scheduled for meeting X.

Karami is scheduled for meeting Z.

Orson is scheduled for the same meeting as Porter.

18.If the meetings are scheduled in the order W, X, Y,

Z, which of the following can be the schedule of

representatives for the meetings?

W X Y Z

(A) Gold lowell Orson Karami

Herrera Nakamura Porter Jones

(B) Jones Gold Orson Karami

Lowell Herrera Porter Nakamura

(C) Jones Gold Nakamura Orson

Loweil Herrera Porter Karami

(D) Jones Gold Orson Karami

Lowell Herrera Porter Nakamura

(E) Jones Gold Orson Karami

Lowell Herrera Porter Nakamura

19.If Orson is scheduled for meeting Y, which of the

following can be true?

(A) Gold is scheduled for the same meeting as

Jones.

(B) Herrera is scheduled for the same meeting as

Lowell.

(C) Jones is scheduled for the second meeting.

(D) Karami is scheduled for the third meeting.

(E) Lowell is scheduled for the fourth meeting.

20.If Gold and Jones are both scheduled for the third

meeting, which of the following must be true?

(A) Herrera is scheduled for the first meeting.

(B) Lowell is scheduled for the first meeting.

(C) Porter is scheduled for the first meeting.

(D) Karami is scheduled for the same meeting as

Nakamura.

(E) Lowell is scheduled for the same meeting as

Nakamura.

21.If Nakamura is scheduled for the third meeting and

Karami is scheduled for the fourth meeting, which of

the following must be true?

(A) Herrera is scheduled for the second meeting.

(B) Jones is scheduled for the second meeting.

(C) Lowell is scheduled for meeting Y.

(D) Nakamura is scheduled for meeting Z.

(E) Porter is scheduled for meeting Y.

22.If no other representative is scheduled for the meeting

for which Jones is scheduled, any of the following

can be true EXCEPT:

(A) Jones is scheduled for the third meeting.

(B) Lowell is scheduled for the second meeting.

(C) Nakamura is schedule for the fourth meeting.

(D) Lowell is scheduled for meeting Z.

(E) Nakamura is scheduled for meeting Y.

23 The town of San Leonardo has recently enacted a law

banning smoking in all restaurants within town limits.

Since many smokers who normally dine in San

Leonardo's restaurants will not want to refrain from

smoking during their meals, San Leonardo's restau-

rants will undoubtedly lose many patrons and con-

siderable income.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to

strengthen the argument above?

(A) Most residents of San Leonardo who eat in res-

taurants are not smokers.

(B) Most smokers who dine in the company of non-

smokers are willing to refrain from smoking

during their meals.

(C) If the law banning smoking in restaurants had

not been enacted, it is likely that a more

stringent law banning smoking in all public

places in San Leonardo would have been

enacted instead.

(D) Prior to the enactment of the law banning

smoking in San Leonardo's restaurant, the

town had a law that required most restaurants

to have nonsmoking sections.

(E) None of the other communities adjacent to San

Leonardo, which have restaurants comparable

to those of San Leonardo, has enacted and

enforces any antismoking legislation.

24. Children whose biological parents both have Tic

Syndrome Z (TSZ), which is characterized by the

involuntary contraction of certain muscles, are about

four times more likely to develop such contractions

than are children whose biological parents do not

have TSZ, It is likely, therefore, that predisposition

to TSZ is an inherited trait.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen

the conclusion above?

(A) Children whose parents have TSZ are more

likely to develop TSZ if they are under unusual

stress at school or at home than if they are not

under such stress.

(B) Children whose biological parents do not have

TSZ are more likely to develop TSZ if they are

raised by adoptive parents with TSZ than if

they are raised by their biological parents.

(C) Children whose biological parents have TSZ are

as likely to develop TSZ if they are raised by

adoptive parents who do not have TSZ as if

they are raised by their biological parents.

(D) Children whose biological parents have TSZ and

who develop TSZ usually avoid developing a

severe form of the syndrome if they seek

treatment for TSZ shortly after developing the

first signs of it.

(E) Children with TSZ whose biological parents do

not have TSZ are less likely to have the syn-

drome diagnosed when symptoms first appear

than are children with TSZ whose biological

parents have TSZ.

25.Playing eighteenth-century music on the instruments of

that period provides valuable information about how the

music originally sounded. Eighteenth-century instruments

cannot be played without being restored, however, and

restoring such an instrument destroys all of the information

that researchers could obtain from it about eighteenth-

century instrument-making techniques.

If the statements above are true, which of the following

must be true on the basis of them?

(A) Eighteenth-century instruments cannot be used to

provide information about the original techniques

used in playing such instruments if they have

been restored.

(B) Eighteenth-century instruments that have been

restored can provide information only about how

eighteenth-century music originally sounded

(C) Eighteenth-century instruments are the only source

of information about the instrument-making tech-

niques of that period.

(D) An eighteenth-century instrument that has not been

restored can provide more information than can

one that has been restored.

(E) An eighteenth-century instrument cannot serve as a

source of new information about eighteenth-century

instrument-making techniques once it can be played

SECTION 6

1. Some activists believe that because the health-care

system has become increasingly---- to those it

serves, individuals must ---- bureaucratic impedi-

ments in order to develop and promote new therapies.

(A) attuned.. avoid

(B) inimical.. utilize

(C) unresponsive ..circumvent

(D) indifferent.. supplement

(E) sensitized.. forsake

2. The acts of vandalism that these pranksters had

actually ---- were insignificant compared with those

they had ---- but had not attempted.

(A) hidden .. renounced

(B) advocated .. meditated

(C) inflicted .. dismissed

(D) committed .. effected

(E) perpetrated .. contemplated

3. Though one cannot say that Michelangelo was an

impractical designer, he was, of all nonprofessional

architects known, the most ---- in that he was the

least constrained by tradition or precedent.

(A) pragmatic

(B) adventurous

(C) empirical

(D) skilled

(E) learned

4. Before adapting to changes in values, many prefer to

----, to ---- the universally agreed-on principles

that have been upheld for centuries.

(A) innovate .. protect

(B) resist ..defend

(C) ponder .. subvert

(D) vacillate ..publicize

(E) revert .. ignore

5. Although the records of colonial New England are

---- in comparison with those available in France

or England, the records of other English colonies in

America are even more ----.

(A) sporadic.. irrefutable

(B) sparse.. incontrovertible

(C) ambiguous.. authoritative

(D) sketchy.. fragmentary

(E) puzzling .. unquestionable

6. High software prices are frequently said to -------

widespread illegal copying, although the opposite

--- that high prices are the cause of the copying -- is

equally plausible.

(A) contribute to

(B) result from

(C) correlate with

(D) explain

(E) precede

7. Because early United States writers thought that the

mark of great literature was grandiosity and elegance

not to be found in common speech, they ---- the

vernacular.

(A) dissected

(B) avoided

(C) misunderstood

(D) investigated

(E) exploited

8. OBSTRUCT: PROGRESS::

(A) reveal: information

(B) polish: illumination

(C) implicate: guilt

(D) inspire: artistry

(E) stunt: growth

9. INTERVIEW: APPLICANT::

(A) recital: pianist

(B) exercise: athlete

(C) audition: actor

(D) manuscript: writer

(E) flight plan: pilot

10. COMBUSTIBLE: IGNITE::

(A) impermeable: saturate

(B) impenetrable: pierce

(C) malleable: shape

(D) rigid: stretch

(E) sterile: extract

11. SLACKEN: TENSION::

(A) rarefy: expansion

(B) blunt: sharpness

(C) obscure: cloudiness

(D) quicken: animation

(E) oscillate: rotation

12. BIGOT: TOLERANCE::

(A) scoundrel: misdeed

(B) liar: honesty

(C) brat: annoyance

(D) outcast: respect

(E) snitch: information

13. IMPROVEMENTS: MASTERY::

(A) efforts: exertion

(B) savings: wealth

(C) performance: talent

(D) practice: intention

(E) diversification: proficiency

14. DILETTANTE: SUPERFICIALITY::

(A) partisan: bias

(B) crusader: passivity

(C) libertarian: authority

(D) champion: restlessness

(E) sage: argumentativeness

15. WINNOW: CHAFF::

(A) ferment: alcohol

(B) skim: cream

(C) pare: fruit

(D) refine: oil

(E) filter: impurities

16. STANZA: LINE::

(A) essay: theme

(B) scene: monologue

(C) play: vignette

(D) volume: issue

(E) concert: program

(This passage is adapted from an article published in 1981.)

The term "remote sensing" refers to the techniques of

measurement and interpretation of phenomena from a dis-

tance. Prior to the mid-1960's the interpretation of film

images was the primary means for remote sensing of the

(5) Earth's geologic features. With the development of the

optomechanical scanner, scientists began to construct digital

multispectral images using data beyond the sensitivity range

of visible light photography. These images are constructed

by mechanically aligning pictorial representations of such

(10)phenomena as the reflection of light waves outside the vis-

ible spectrum, the refraction of radio waves, and the daily

changes in temperature in areas on the Earth's surface.

Digital multispectral imaging has now become the basic

tool in geologic remote sensing from satellites.

(15) The advantage of digital over photographic imaging is

evident: the resulting numerical data are precisely known,

and digital data are not subject to the vagaries of difficult-

to-control chemical processing. With digital processing, it is

possible to combine a large number of spectral images. The

(20)acquisition of the first multispectral digital data set from

the multispectral scanner (MSS) aboard the satellite

Landsat in 1972 consequently attracted the attention of the

entire geologic community. Landsat MSS data are now

being applied to a variety of geologic problems that are

(25)difficult to solve by conventional methods alone. These

include specific problems in mineral and energy resource

exploration and the charting of glaciers and shallow seas.

A more fundamental application of remote sensing is to

augment conventional methods for geologic mapping of

(30)large areas. Regional maps present compositional, struc-

tural, and chronological information for reconstructing

geologic evolution. Such reconstructions have important

practical applications because the conditions under which

rock units and other structural features are formed influence

(35)the occurrence of ore and petroleum deposits and affect the

thickness and integrity of the geologic media in which the

deposits are found.

Geologic maps incorporate a large, varied body of spe-

cific field and laboratory measurements, but the maps must

(40)be interpretative because field measurements are always

limited by rock exposure, accessibility and labor resources.

With remote-sensing techniques it is possible to obtain

much geologic information more efficiently than it can be

obtained on the ground. These techniques also facilitate

(45)overall interpretation. Since detailed geologic mapping is

generally conducted in small areas, the continuity of

regional features that have intermittent and variable expres-

sions is often not recognized, but in the comprehensive

views of Landsat images these continuities are apparent.

(50)However, some critical information cannot be obtained

through remote sensing, and several characteristics of the

Landsat MSS impose limitations on the acquisition of diag-

nostic data. Some of these limitations can be overcome by

designing satellite systems specifically for geologic pur-

(55)poses; but, to be most effective, remote-sensing data must

still be combined with data from field surveys and labora-

tory tests, the techniques of the earlier twentieth century.

17.By using the word "interpretative"in line 40, the

author is indicating which of the following?

(A) Some maps are based more on data from aerial

photography than on data from field operations.

(B) Some maps are based almost exclusively on labor-

atory measurements.

(C) Some maps are based on incomplete data from

field observations.

(D) Some maps show only large geologic features.

(E) Some maps can be three-dimensional.

18. With which of the following statements about geologic

mapping would the author be most likely to agree?

(A) Geologic mapping is basically an art and not a

science.

(B) Geologic mapping has not changed significantly

since the early 1960's.

(C) Geologic mapping will have limited practical

applications until remote-sensing systems are

perfected.

(D) A developmental milestone in geologic mapping

was reached in 1972.

(E) Without the present variety of remote-sensing

techniques, geologic mapping could not be done.

19. According to the passage, measurements of which of

the following can be provided by the optomechanical

scanner but not by visible-light photography?

(A) The amount of visible light reflected from oceans

(B) The density of foliage in remote areas on the

Earth's surface

(C) Daily temperature changes of areas on the Earth's

surface.

(D) The degree of radioactivity emitted by exposed

rocks on the Earth's surface.

(E) Atmospheric conditions over large landmasses

20. It can be inferred from the passage that a major disad-

vantage of photographic imaging in geologic mapping

is that such photography

(A) cannot be used at night

(B) cannot focus on the details of a geologic area

(C) must be chemically processed

(D) is always enhanced by digital reconstruction

(E) cannot reflect changes over extended periods of

time

21. It can be inferred from the passage that Landsat images

differ from conventional geologic maps in that Landsat

images

(A) reveal the exact size of petroleum deposits and ore

deposits

(B) indicate the continuity of features that might not

otherwise be interpreted as continuous

(C) predict the movements of glaciers

(D) provide highly accurate data about the occurrence

of mineral deposits

(E) reveal the integrity of the media in which petro-

leum deposits and ore deposits are found

22. The passage provides information about each of the

following topics EXCEPT

(A) the principal method of geologic remote sensing

prior to the mid-1960's

(B) some of the phenomena measured by digital multi-

spectral images in remote sensing

(C) some of the practical uses of regional geologic

maps

(D) the kinds of problems that are difficult to solve

solely through conventional methods of geologic

mapping

(E) the specific limitations of the Landsat multi-

spectral scanner

23. The passage suggests which of the following about the

"conventional methods" mentioned in line 29?

(A) They consist primarily of field surveys and

laboratory measurements.

(B) They are not useful in providing information

necessary for reconstructing geologic evolution

(C) They have rarely been used by geologists since

1972.

(D) They are used primarily to gather compositional

information about geologic features.

(E) They are limited primarily because of difficulties

involved in interpreting film images.

Although the development of new infrastructure (such

public facilities as power plants, schools, and bridges ) is

usually determined by governmental planning, sometimes

this development can be planned more flexibly and realis-

(5) tically by private investors who anticipate profit from the

collection of user fees. Such profits can contribute to the

financing of more infrastructure if demand proves great

enough, whereas the reluctance of developers to invest in

such projects can signal that additional infrastructure is not

(10)needed. During the economic boom of the 1980's, for

example, the state of Virginia authorized private developers

to build a $300 million toll road. These developers obtained

the needed right-of- way from property owners, but by 1993

they still had not raised the necessary financing. The unwill-

(15)ingness of investors to finance this project does not negate

the viability of privately financed roads; rather, it illustrates

a virtue of private financing. If a road appears unlikely to

attract enough future traffic to pay for the road, then it

should not be built.

24.The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) build a case for increasing the development of

new infrastructure

(B) advocate an alternative to government financing of

infrastructure

(C) explain the failure of a privately financed venture

(D) suggest the types of infrastructure most appro-

priate for private financing

(E) argue against government restrictions on devel-

oping new infrastructure

25. The passage implies that the “governmental planning ”

mentioned in line 3 may lead to which of the following

problems?

(A) Improper use of profits derived from user fees

(B) Unduly slow development of necessary new

infrastructure

(C) Unrealistic decisions about developing new

infrastructure

(D) Incorrect predictions about profits to be gained

from user fees

(E) Obstruction of private financing for the devel-

opment of new infrastructure

26. According to the passage, which of the following is

true of the toll road mentioned in line 12?

(A) After it was built, it attracted too little traffic to

pay for its construction.

(B) It was partially financed by the state of Virginia.

(C) Its development was authorized during an eco-

nomic boom.

(D) Its construction was controversial among local

residents.

(E) Its developers were discouraged by governmental

restrictions on acquiring the necessary land.

27. The passage suggests that which of the following

would occur if a privately financed bridge that proved

to be profitable failed after a number of years to meet

the demands of traffic?

(A) Private developers who financed the bridge would

rely on governmental authorities to develop new

infrastructure.

(B) User fees would be increased so that usage would

become more costly.

(C) Governmental authorities would be reluctant to

rely on private contractors to develop a new

bridge.

(D) The success of the project would be jeopardized

by public dissatisfaction with the project's

adequacy.

(E) Profits generated by user fees would be used to

help finance the construction of new infrastruc-

ture to alleviate the traffic problem.

28. EVOKE:

(A) try to hinder

(B) fail to elicit

(C) refuse to implore

(D) pretend to agree

(E) attempt to calm

29. OSTENTATION:

(A) austerity

(B) wisdom

(C) illumination

(D) superficiality

(E) agitation

30. BRISTLE:

(A) cower

(B) feint

(C) equivocate

(D) coerce

(E) apprise

31. AGGRANDIZE:

(A) conciliate

(B) undermine

(C) relegate

(D) remain unapologetic

(E) remain inexplicit

32. ENDEMIC:

(A) undeniable

(B) intermittent

(C) anomalous

(D) foreign

(E) unexpected

33. BELLICOSE:

(A) enervated

(B) disloyal

(C) honest

(D) likely to be generous

(E) inclined to make peace

34. ABJURE:

(A) affirm

(B) cajole

(C) insist

(D) pronounce

(E) shout

35. SALUTARY

(A) unexpected

(B) transitory

(C) unhealthy

(D) disoriented

(E) dilapidated

36. LUGUBRIOUSNESS:

(A) orderliness

(B) shallowness

(C) believability

(D) cheerfulness

(E) dedication

37. PRESCIENCE:

(A) acuity

(B) myopia

(C) vacillation

(D) tardiness

(E) inhibition

38. INVETERATE:

(A) arbitrary

(B) occasional

(C) obvious

(D) progressive

(E) compelling

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